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Should Welsh, Scottish, and Northern Irish MPs be entitled to vote on legislation which only affects England?

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Last answered 3 hours ago

West Lothian Question Poll Results

Yes

146,143 votes

20%

No

564,884 votes

78%

Distribution of answers submitted by UK [United Kingdom] voters.

3 Yes answers
2 No answers
1 overlapping answers

Data includes total votes submitted by visitors since Oct 2, 2014. For users that answer more than once (yes we know), only their most recent answer is counted in the total results. Total percentages may not add up to exactly 100% as we allow users to submit "grey area" stances that may not be categorized into yes/no stances.

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Data based on unique submissions (duplicates or multiple submissions are eliminated) per user using a 30-day moving average to reduce daily variance from traffic sources. Totals may not add up to exactly 100% as we allow users to submit "grey area" stances that may not be categorized into yes/no stances.

Data based on 30-day moving average to reduce daily variance from traffic sources. Totals may not add up to exactly 100% as we allow users to submit "grey area" stances that may not be categorized into yes/no stances.

Learn more about West Lothian Question

The issue of English votes for English laws (EVEL), commonly known as the West Lothian question, refers to whether MPs from Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland should be able to vote on matters that affect only England. Some argue that because of the Barnett formula, issues in England greatly affect Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland. The Barnett formula automatically adjusts levels of public spending in Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland based on the population of each nation and which powers are devolved to them.  See recent west lothian question news

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