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17 Replies

 @9JTN8S6 answered…1wk1W

This question makes sense for territories that were seized by colonial powers, such as in the USA and Canada. It does not make sense in Britain.

 @B4NBHRQanswered…2wks2W

Yes, the indigenous English/Scottish/Welsh should have their right over their ancestral homeland acknowledged.

 @9ZT8SX9answered…5mos5MO

No, it's performative and they should do something more than a statement to recognise it.

 @9XFDYGTanswered…6mos6MO

Including land acknowledgment statements should be the choice of the event as to whether or not to include them.

 @9WQKFWKanswered…6mos6MO

No, there is no need to make such statements due to the fact this is only done to cause more division, History is not pretty, lands and peoples from all corners of the world have had historical injustices enacted upon them, there is no need for preferential treatment or acknowledgement of indigenous peoples, the past is the past, we need to move on towards the future.

 @9VCGPFFanswered…7mos7MO

 @9TSHWG2Labouranswered…7mos7MO

If you are in a place where the displaced/colonised population is still alive and is still affected by the displacement, yes.

 @B2WQYCFanswered…3mos3MO

How on earth does this apply to the UK? Unless we are talking about the Celts and Stonehenge?

 @B2J98W9answered…3mos3MO

The UK itself did not rob land from ethnic minorities in the home islands and so this is unneeded

 @9WTN5BT  from Maine  answered…6mos6MO

Theoretically this sounds good but in practice so many people have previously taken land from others that it cannot be workable.

 @B4XF2HWanswered…4 days4D

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